patternMinor
Does reduction from an NP-complete problem to some problem $X$ imply that $X\in NP$?
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problemimplycompletereductionsomedoesthatfrom
Problem
I am having problems resolving the following question:
Given some problem $X$. If there exists a polynomial time reduction from (for example) $\mbox{SAT}$ to $X$, $(\mbox{SAT} \leq_{p} X)$ and since we know that $\mbox{SAT}$ is $\mbox{NP-complete}$, to show that $X$ is $\mbox{NP-complete}$ is it necessary to show that $X\in \mbox{NP}$ via some third party algorithm?
If yes, then why?
Given some problem $X$. If there exists a polynomial time reduction from (for example) $\mbox{SAT}$ to $X$, $(\mbox{SAT} \leq_{p} X)$ and since we know that $\mbox{SAT}$ is $\mbox{NP-complete}$, to show that $X$ is $\mbox{NP-complete}$ is it necessary to show that $X\in \mbox{NP}$ via some third party algorithm?
If yes, then why?
Solution
the reduction only shows that X is at least as hard as SAT (NP-HARD). This could mean that X is in a class suspected to be harder than NP such as PSPACE or EXPTIME. To show that X is NP-complete you must show that it is also in NP. If you try it out you will see that you can easily reduce SAT to problems in EXPTIME that are not suspected to be in NP. The idea being that your reduction shows that X is at least as hard as SAT, but there are classes of problems harder than NP problems which X could fall into.
Context
StackExchange Computer Science Q#9519, answer score: 5
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