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Higher-ranked polymorphism without explicit application or subtyping?
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Problem
So, I'm familiar with two main strategies of having higher-ranked polymorphism in a language:
However, some languages, like Haskell, have impredicative higher-ranked polymorphism without explicit type applications.
How is this possible? How can type-checking "know" when to instantiate a type without an explicit instantiation or cast, and without a notion of subtyping?
Or, is typechecking even decidable in such a system? Is this a case where language like Haskell implement something undecidable that happens to work for most peoples' use cases.
EDIT:
To be clear, I'm interested in the uses, not definitions, of polymorphically-typed values.
For example, suppose we have:
How can we know that we need to instantiate
Or, to separate ourselves from function types:
Here, we can't even distinguish the use of
How can a theoretical system distinguish these two cases without a magical "you can convert any polymorphic type to its instance" rule? Or with a rule like that, can we know when to apply it, to keep decidability?
- System-F style polymorphism, where functions are explicitly typed, and instantiation happens explicitly though type application. These systems can be impredicative.
- Subtyping-based polymorphism, where a polymorphic type is a subtype of all of its instantiations. To have decidable subtyping, polymorphism must be predicative. This paper provides an example of such a system.
However, some languages, like Haskell, have impredicative higher-ranked polymorphism without explicit type applications.
How is this possible? How can type-checking "know" when to instantiate a type without an explicit instantiation or cast, and without a notion of subtyping?
Or, is typechecking even decidable in such a system? Is this a case where language like Haskell implement something undecidable that happens to work for most peoples' use cases.
EDIT:
To be clear, I'm interested in the uses, not definitions, of polymorphically-typed values.
For example, suppose we have:
f : forall a . a -> a
g : (forall a . a -> a) -> Int
val = (g f, f True, f 'a')How can we know that we need to instantiate
f when it's applied, but not when it's given as an argument?Or, to separate ourselves from function types:
f : forall a . a
g : (forall a . a) -> Int
val = (g f, f && True, f + 0)Here, we can't even distinguish the use of
f as applying it versus passing it: it's instantiated when passed as an argument to && and +, but not g.How can a theoretical system distinguish these two cases without a magical "you can convert any polymorphic type to its instance" rule? Or with a rule like that, can we know when to apply it, to keep decidability?
Solution
The Dunfield & Krishnaswami paper's introduction refers to Practical type inference for arbitrary-rank types
As can be seen, it scales well to advanced type systems; moreover,
it is easy to implement, and yields relatively high-quality error messages
(Peyton Jones et al. 2007)
In System F-ish approach there is also a "subtyping" relation. See section 3.3 Subsumption.
I'd also emphasize that Haskell doesn't have impredicative types (or inference for them). See: https://mail.haskell.org/pipermail/ghc-devs/2016-September/012940.html for pointers.
-
You can write a polytype as an argument of a type in a signature e.g. f :: [forall a. a->a] -> Int
And that’s all. A unification variable STILL CANNOT be unified with a polytype. The only way you can call a polymorphic function at a polytype is to use Visible Type Application.
In short, if you call a function at a polytype, you must use VTA. Simple, easy, predictable; and doubtless annoying. But possible.
I.e.
not
Yet, you can write the latter explictly, if you enable
As can be seen, it scales well to advanced type systems; moreover,
it is easy to implement, and yields relatively high-quality error messages
(Peyton Jones et al. 2007)
In System F-ish approach there is also a "subtyping" relation. See section 3.3 Subsumption.
I'd also emphasize that Haskell doesn't have impredicative types (or inference for them). See: https://mail.haskell.org/pipermail/ghc-devs/2016-September/012940.html for pointers.
- You can write a polytype in a visible type argument; eg. f @(forall a. a->a)
-
You can write a polytype as an argument of a type in a signature e.g. f :: [forall a. a->a] -> Int
And that’s all. A unification variable STILL CANNOT be unified with a polytype. The only way you can call a polymorphic function at a polytype is to use Visible Type Application.
In short, if you call a function at a polytype, you must use VTA. Simple, easy, predictable; and doubtless annoying. But possible.
I.e.
id id will always be elaborated asforall a. id @(a -> a) (id @a)not
id @(forall a. a -> a) idYet, you can write the latter explictly, if you enable
ImpredicativeTypes.Code Snippets
forall a. id @(a -> a) (id @a)id @(forall a. a -> a) idContext
StackExchange Computer Science Q#75364, answer score: 7
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